Postmenopausal Vaginal Bleeding Evaluation

Teaching case · Obstetrics and gynaecology · Easy

Obstetrics and gynaecology · Easy

This case is fictional and exists for study. It describes no real patient.

58 years · female

A 58-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic complaining of a two-week history of light, painless vaginal bleeding. Her last natural menstrual period was six years ago. She has a history of essential hypertension and a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m². Her regular medication is amlodipine. She denies pelvic pain, fever, weight loss, or postcoital bleeding. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Speculum examination demonstrates a normal-appearing cervix with a minimal amount of dark blood visible in the vaginal vault. Bimanual examination reveals an anteverted, non-tender uterus of normal size with no palpable adnexal masses.

Vital signs

HR
76 bpm
BP
134/84 mmHg
RR
15/min
Temp
36.7 °C
SpO₂
99%

Examination findings

  • Normal-appearing cervix with small volume dark blood in the vaginal vault
  • Anteverted, non-tender uterus of normal size without adnexal tenderness or mass

Investigations

Haemoglobin12.5 g/dLreference: 12.0-15.5
Platelets250 10^9/Lreference: 150-400

Question 1 of 3

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?

Question 2 of 3

A transvaginal ultrasound is performed and demonstrates an endometrial thickness of 7 mm. What is the next best management step?

Question 3 of 3

Histological sampling demonstrates endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. Edit 1 — replace the question prompt at line 74: "prompt": "Histological sampling demonstrates endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for the development of this condition?" (Do not alter the vignette, the options, or answer_index. This removes the "in her history" presupposition, leaves Multiparity as a legitimate protective-factor distractor that the explanation already handles, and invents no obstetric data.) Edit 2 — same file, explanation at line 82, correct the US spelling to British for a PLAB item: "...adipose tissue contains aromatase, which converts adrenal androgens into oestrone."

Key learning points

  • Postmenopausal bleeding must always be investigated urgently to exclude endometrial carcinoma.
  • Transvaginal ultrasound is the initial imaging modality; an endometrial thickness >4 mm mandates an endometrial biopsy.
  • Unopposed oestrogen exposure due to obesity significantly increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma.

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